CISA Actual Questions Answers Pass With Real CISA Exam Dumps [Q678-Q695]

CISA Actual Questions Answers Pass With Real CISA Exam Dumps

CISA Dumps Prepare Your Exam With 1151 Questions

ISACA CISA (Certified Information Systems Auditor) exam is an internationally recognized certification that is designed for IT professionals who want to specialize in information systems auditing, control, and security. Certified Information Systems Auditor certification is awarded by the Information Systems Audit and Control Association (ISACA), which is a globally recognized professional association for IT governance, security, and auditing.

What Are Topics Tested in ISACA CISA Certification Exam?

The skills tested in the CISA exam include the following domains:

• Information Systems Implementation, Development, and Acquisition (12%);
• Auditing Process of Information System (21%);
• Business Resilience and Operation of Information Systems (23%);
• IT Governance and Management (17%);
• Information Assets Protection (27%).

The first topic is split into two parts. Therefore, candidates will need to demonstrate their skills in planning and executing the IS auditing process. The first subsection includes questions that will test the candidates’ ability to manage IS audit standards, and apply the ISACA code of ethics. Also, they will need to show their experience in developing business processes and choose the right types of controls to improve business performance. Besides, they should be experts in risk-based audit planning and develop the right types of audits and assessments. The second subtopic focuses on concepts like audit project management and sampling methodology. Also, examinees should know how to audit evidence collection techniques and work with data analytics, as well as reporting and communication techniques.

Within the second domain, examinees will need to ensure IT governance and IT management. This means that they should be proficient in developing a coherent IT strategy and governance. Also, they should develop IT-related frameworks, standards, procedures, and policies. Candidates should be skilled in ensuring a correct organizational structure and enterprise architecture. They should also show maturity in handling enterprise risk management features and comply with the laws and the organization’s standards. When it comes to IT management, applicants should know how to manage IT resources and manage IT service provider acquisition. Last but not least, they should ensure correct monitoring and reporting of IT performance and focus on IT quality assurance and management.

The third chapter focuses on information systems acquisition and development. Candidates should demonstrate their ability to govern and manage projects as well as develop a correct business case and feasibility analysis. Examinees will be required to answer questions related to system development methodologies and control design and identification features. The second subtopic included in this section handles Information Systems implementation. Thus, applicants will need to master testing methodologies and know how to configure and release the right management tools. Candidates should also focus on infrastructure deployment, data conversion, and system migration. The post-implementation review is also an important topic included here.

The fourth chapter concentrates on business resilience and information systems operations. Examinees will need to demonstrate how familiar they are with Business Impact Analysis, system resiliency, Business Continuity Plans, and Disaster Recovery Plans. These skills show the candidates’ expertise in coming up with solutions that ensure business continuity in case something doesn’t work as planned. This chapter also asks candidates to demonstrate that they know how to manage Common Technology components, master data governance, and end-user computing. Besides, they should be experienced in handling IT Service Level Agreements and Database Management. Applicants should also find the correct answer to questions related to Problem and Incident as well as Systems Performance Management.

The final topic handles information asset protection. Exam-takers should demonstrate that they understand how privacy principles work or if they are able to ensure network and end-point security. Also, they should be experienced in managing virtualization environments and work with Public Key Infrastructure. It is also essential that examinees understand how to manage Physical Access and Environmental controls as well as manage information asset security frameworks, guidelines, and standards. They should also know how to handle different security techniques dedicated to testing and monitoring. Besides, candidates should be proficient in managing incident response and handle evidence collection & forensics.

QUESTION 678
Which of the following cloud deployment models would BEST meet the needs of a startup software development organization with limited initial capital?

 Community

 Public

 Hybrid

 Private

QUESTION 679
Which of the following is the BEST indicator of the effectiveness of signature-based intrusion detection
systems?

 An increase in the number of identified false positives

 An increase in the number of unfamiliar sources of intruders

 An increase in the number of detected incidents not previously identified

 An increase in the number of internally reported critical incidents

Section: Protection of Information Assets

QUESTION 680
During a database audit, an IS auditor notes frequent problems due to the growing size of the order tables. Which of the following is the BEST recommendation in this situation?

 Periodically delete completed orders.

 Migrate to a different database management system.

 Develop an archiving approach.

 Build more table indices.

QUESTION 681
Which of the following would be MOST effective when justifying the cost of adding security controls to an existing web application?

 Vulnerability assessment results

 Application security policy

 A business case

 Internal audit reports

Section: Governance and Management of IT

QUESTION 682
An IS auditor interviewing a payroll manager notes that the manager is able to make changes to employee data within the human resources (HR) system What should the auditor do NEXT?

 Review the organization’s policies.

 Perform substantive testing.

 Review the prior year’s audit report.

 Report the finding to management

QUESTION 683
Which of the following disaster recovery/continuity plan components provides the GREATEST assurance of
recovery after a disaster?

 The alternate facility will be available until the original information processing facility is restored.

 User management is involved in the identification of critical systems and their associated critical
recovery times.

 Copies of the plan are kept at the homes of key decision-making personnel.

 Feedback is provided to management assuring them that the business continuity plans are indeed
workable and that the procedures are current.

Section: Protection of Information Assets
Explanation:
The alternate facility should be made available until the original site is restored to provide the greatest
assurance of recovery after a disaster. Without this assurance, the plan will not be successful. All other
choices ensure prioritization or the execution pf the plan.

QUESTION 684
An IT governance body wants to determine whether IT service delivery is based on consistently effective processes. Which of the following is the BEST approach?

 implement a control self-assessment (CSA)

 Conduct a gap analysis

 Develop a maturity model

 Evaluate key performance indicators (KPIs)

The best approach to determine whether IT service delivery is based on consistently effective processes is to evaluate key performance indicators (KPIs). KPIs are measurable values that demonstrate how effectively an organization is achieving its key objectives. KPIs can help the IT governance body to monitor and assess the performance, quality, and efficiency of the IT service delivery processes. KPIs can also help to identify areas for improvement and benchmark against best practices or industry standards. References:
* CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 1, Section 1.3.21
* CISA Online Review Course, Domain 5, Module 2, Lesson 22

QUESTION 685
A recent audit concluded that an organization’s information security system was weak and that monitoring would likely fail to detect penetration. Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate recommendation?

 Look continually for new criminal behavior and attacks on sensitive data

 Establish a clear policy related to security and the handling of sensitive data

 Encrypt sensitive data while strengthening the system

 Identify and periodically remove sensitive data that is no longer needed

Section: Information System Operations, Maintenance and Support

QUESTION 686
Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate the impact of ransomware attacks?

 Backing up data frequently

 Invoking the disaster recovery plan (DRP)

 Requiring password changes for administrative accounts

 Paying the ransom

Section: Protection of Information Assets

QUESTION 687
Which of the following would be the MOST cost-effective recommendation for reducing the number of defects encountered during software development projects?

 increase the time allocated for system testing

 implement formal software inspections

 increase the development staff

 Require the sign-off of all project deliverables

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Inspections of code and design are a proven software quality technique. An advantage of this approach is that defects are identified before they propagate through the development life cycle. This reduces the cost of correction as less rework is involved. Allowing more time for testing may discover more defects; however, little is revealed as to why the quality problems are occurring and the cost of the extra testing, and the cost of rectifying the defects found will be greater than if they had been discovered earlier in the development process. The ability of the development staff can have a bearing on the quality of what is produced; however, replacing staff can be expensive and disruptive, and the presence of a competent staff cannot guarantee quality in the absence of effective quality management processes. Sign-off of deliverables may help detect defects if signatories are diligent about reviewing deliverable content; however, this is difficult to enforce. Deliverable reviews normally do not go down to the same level of detail as software inspections.

QUESTION 688
An IS auditor observes a system performance monitoring too that states that a server critical to the organization averages high CPU utilization across a cluster of four virtual servers throughout the audit period. To determine if further investigation is required an IS auditor should review:

 system baselines.

 the system process activity log.

 the number of CPUs allocated to each virtual machine.

 organizational objectives.

QUESTION 689
Which of the following term related to network performance refers to the variation in the time of arrival of packets on the receiver of the information?

 Bandwidth

 Throughput

 Latency

 Jitter

Explanation/Reference:
Simply said, the time difference in packet inter-arrival time to their destination can be called jitter. Jitter is specific issue that normally exists in packet switched networks and this phenomenon is usually not causing any communication problems.TCP/IP is responsible for dealing with the jitter impact on communication.
On the other hand, in VoIP network environment, or better say in any bigger environment today where we use IP phones on our network this can be a bigger problem. When someone is sending VoIP communication at a normal interval (let’s say one frame every 10 ms) those packets can stuck somewhere in between inside the packet network and not arrive at expected regular peace to the destined station.
That’s the whole jitter phenomenon all about so we can say that the anomaly in tempo with which packet is expected and when it is in reality received is jitter.
jitter

Image from: http://howdoesinternetwork.com/wp-content/uploads/2013/05/jitter.gif In this image above, you can notice that the time it takes for packets to be send is not the same as the period in which the will arrive on the receiver side. One of the packets encounters some delay on his way and it is received little later than it was asumed. Here are the jitter buffers entering the story. They will mitigate packet delay if required. VoIP packets in networks have very changeable packet inter-arrival intervals because they are usually smaller than normal data packets and are therefore more numerous with bigger chance to get some delay along the way.
For your exam you should know below information about Network performance:
Network performance refers to measurement of service quality of a telecommunications product as seen by the customer.
The following list gives examples of network performance measures for a circuit-switched network and one type of packet-switched network (ATM):
Circuit-switched networks: In circuit switched networks, network performance is synonymous with the grade of service. The number of rejected calls is a measure of how well the network is performing under heavy traffic loads. Other types of performance measures can include noise, echo and so on.
ATM: In an Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) network, performance can be measured by line rate, quality of service (QoS), data throughput, connect time, stability, technology, modulation technique and modem enhancements.
There are many different ways to measure the performance of a network, as each network is different in nature and design. Performance can also be modeled instead of measured; one example of this is using state transition diagrams to model queuing performance in a circuit-switched network. These diagrams allow the network planner to analyze how the network will perform in each state, ensuring that the network will be optimally designed.
The following measures are often considered important:
Bandwidth – Bandwidth is commonly measured in bits/second is the maximum rate that information can be transferred Throughput – Throughput is the actual rate that information is transferred Latency – Latency is the delay between the sender and the receiver decoding it, this is mainly a function of the signals travel time, and processing time at any nodes the information traverses Jitter – Jitter is the variation in the time of arrival at the receiver of the information Error Rate – Error rate is the number of corrupted bits expressed as a percentage or fraction of the total sen The following answers are incorrect:
Bandwidth – Bandwidth is commonly measured in bits/second is the maximum rate that information can be transferred Throughput – Throughput is the actual rate that information is transferred Latency – Latency is the delay between the sender and the receiver decoding it, this is mainly a function of the signals travel time, and processing time at any nodes the information traverses The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:
CISA review manual 2014 page number 275
and
http://howdoesinternetwork.com/2013/jitter

QUESTION 690
An IS auditor concludes that a local area network’s (LAN’s) access security is satisfactory. In reviewing the work, the audit manager should:

 re-perform some steps of the audit to verify the quality of the work.

 verify that the elements of an agreed-upon audit plan have been addressed.

 verify user management’s agreement with the findings.

 assess whether the auditor had the appropriate skills to perform the work.

Section: The process of Auditing Information System

QUESTION 691
Which of the following is MOST important for an organization to consider when planning to outsource data storage to a third-party provider?

 The cost of delivering the service

 The country in which the provider operates

 The classification levels of the stored data

 The skill set and experience of the provider

QUESTION 692
An IS auditor reviewing an outsourcing contract of IT facilities would expect it to define the:

 hardware configuration.

 access control software.

 ownership of intellectual property.

 application development methodology.

Of the choices, the hardware and access control software is generally irrelevant as long as the functionality, availability and security can be affected, which are specific contractual obligations. Similarly, the development methodology should be ofno real concern. The contract must, however, specify who owns the intellectual property (i.e., information being processed, application programs). Ownership of intellectual property will have a significant cost and is a key aspect to be defined in an outsourcing contract.

QUESTION 693
Which of the following is the MOST effective approach in assessing the quality of modifications made to financial software?

 The quality plan will be assessed during the design phase of development

 An independent auditor will be engaged to undertake a pre-implementation review

 Independent quality assurance (QA) activities will be undertaken at various phases of the project

 The quality of the implemented product will be assessed during acceptance testing

QUESTION 694
An IS audit reveals that an organization operating in business continuity mode during a pandemic situation has not performed a simulation test of the business continuity plan (BCP). Which of the following is the auditor’s BEST course of action?

 Confirm the BCP has been recently updated.

 Review the effectiveness of the business response.

 Raise an audit issue for the lack of simulated testing.

 Interview staff members to obtain commentary on the BCP’s effectiveness.

Explanation
This is because the auditor’s primary objective is to evaluate the adequacy and performance of the business continuity plan (BCP) in ensuring the continuity and resilience of the organization’s critical functions and processes during a disruption. The auditor should review the actual results and outcomes of the business response, such as the recovery time, recovery point, service level, customer satisfaction, and incident management, and compare them with the predefined objectives and criteria of the BCP. The auditor should also identify and analyze any gaps, issues, or lessons learned from the business response, and provide recommendations for improvement12.
Answer A. Confirm the BCP has been recently updated. is not the best answer, because it is not directly related to the auditor’s course of action. Confirming the BCP has been recently updated is a part of the audit planning and scoping process, not the audit execution or reporting process. The auditor should confirm the BCP has been recently updated before conducting the audit, not after revealing that a simulation test has not been performed. Moreover, confirming the BCP has been recently updated does not provide sufficient evidence of the effectiveness of the business response12.
Answer C. Raise an audit issue for the lack of simulated testing. is not the best answer, because it is not relevant to the auditor’s course of action. Raising an audit issue for the lack of simulated testing is a part of the audit reporting and follow-up process, not the audit execution or evaluation process. The auditor should raise an audit issue for the lack of simulated testing after reviewing the effectiveness of the business response, not before or instead of doing so. Furthermore, raising an audit issue for the lack of simulated testing does not address the root cause or impact of the problem, nor does it provide any constructive feedback or guidance for improvement12.
Answer D. Interview staff members to obtain commentary on the BCP’s effectiveness. is not the best answer, because it is not sufficient to guide the auditor’s course of action. Interviewing staff members to obtain commentary on the BCP’s effectiveness is a part of the audit evidence collection and analysis process, not the audit evaluation or conclusion process. The auditor should interview staff members to obtain commentary on the BCP’s effectiveness as one of the sources of information, not as the only or main source of information. Additionally, interviewing staff members to obtain commentary on the BCP’s effectiveness may be subjective, biased, or incomplete, and may not reflect the actual performance or outcomes of the business response12.
References:
Business Continuity Management Audit/Assurance Program
Business Continuity Plan Testing: Types and Best Practices

QUESTION 695
Backup procedures for an organization’s critical data are considered to be which type of control?

 Directive

 Corrective

 Detective

 Compensating

Explanation
Backup procedures for an organization’s critical data are considered to be corrective controls, as they are designed to restore normal operations after a disruption or failure. Corrective controls aim to minimize the impact of an incident and prevent recurrence. Directive, detective and compensating controls are not related to backup procedures. Directive controls are intended to guide or instruct users to follow policies and procedures.
Detective controls are intended to identify and report incidents or violations. Compensating controls are intended to mitigate the risk of a missing or ineffective primary control. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2, Section 2.11

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