Buy Latest Mar 12, 2026 CHFM Exam Q&A PDF – One Year Free Update [Q46-Q63]

CHFM Medical Professional

admin -

March 12, 2026

5/5 - (1 vote)

Buy Latest Mar 12, 2026 CHFM Exam Q&A PDF – One Year Free Update

Download the Latest CHFM Dump – 2026 CHFM Exam Questions

NEW QUESTION 46
Child abduction system evaluation is best accomplished by

administration.

security professionals.

the safety committee.

risk managers.

The evaluation of child abduction systems-such as infant security alarms, electronic tagging devices, and controlled access systems-falls under the expertise of security professionals. These professionals are trained to test, monitor, and validate the effectiveness of electronic security and surveillance systems. Their role ensures that abduction-prevention technology is properly installed, maintained, and capable of responding effectively in an emergency.
* Correct Answer (B. security professionals): According to the CHFM exam content outline under Compliance, healthcare facilities are expected to implement and evaluate security measures that meet regulatory and safety requirements. The responsibility for the technical and functional evaluation of systems like infant abduction alarms lies with trained security staff.
* Incorrect Options:
* A. administration: While hospital administration sets policy and allocates resources, they are not directly responsible for evaluating technical systems.
* C. the safety committee: Safety committees review incidents and provide oversight but do not conduct system-level technical evaluations.
* D. risk managers: Risk managers focus on identifying potential liability and compliance issues but rely on security professionals to conduct the detailed evaluation of child abduction systems.
Relevance to CHFM Compliance Domain:
Within the Compliance domain of the CHFM exam, managers must demonstrate knowledge of regulatory standards for security in healthcare facilities, particularly in sensitive areas such as maternity wards.
Evaluation of abduction-prevention systems aligns directly with security operations, which are managed and verified by trained security professionals to ensure compliance with The Joint Commission (TJC), CMS, and industry best practices.
References:
American Hospital Association (AHA), CHFM Candidate Handbook – Exam Content Outline, “Compliance” domain: includes responsibilities for security and safety system evaluation.
The Joint Commission (TJC), Environment of Care Standards – Requirements for infant and pediatric abduction prevention measures.
NFPA 99: Health Care Facilities Code – Security system integration into patient safety measures.

NEW QUESTION 47
To minimize the number of change orders, it is best to have

complete plans and specifications.

a builder’s insurance policy and performance bond.

multiple prequalified bidders.

a qualified construction manager and subcontractors.

The primary cause of change orders is incomplete or unclear plans and specifications. Ensuring that drawings and specs are fully developed before bidding reduces ambiguity, scope gaps, and the likelihood of modifications during construction.
A (Correct): Complete plans/specs = fewer change orders.
B: Bonds/policies protect financially but do not reduce change orders.
C: Prequalification ensures capable bidders but doesn’t eliminate scope issues.
D: Competent managers/subcontractors help but cannot offset incomplete design docs.
Reference: CHFM Handbook – Planning, Design, and Construction domain.

NEW QUESTION 48
During an analysis of a recent fire alarm log, a higher-than-normal incidence of construction-related fire alarm activations is discovered. The following tasks must be performed:
The hospital evaluates actions to confirm that they resulted in improvements.
The hospital takes action when it does not achieve or sustain planned improvements.
The facility manager identifies and prioritizes improvement opportunities.
The hospital takes action on improvement priorities.
What is the most effective procedural sequence?

4, 3, 1, 2

3, 4, 2, 1

3, 4, 1, 2

4, 3, 2, 1

The correct sequence aligns with the Plan-Do-Check-Act (PDCA) cycle of continuous improvement:
Identify and prioritize opportunities (3).
Take action on those priorities (4).
Evaluate to confirm results (1).
Take further action if goals are not sustained (2).
This matches performance improvement processes emphasized in the CHFM Administration domain.
References: AHA/ASHE CHFM Handbook – Administration domain; Joint Commission Performance Improvement standards.

NEW QUESTION 49
What is the maximum capacity of soiled linen or trash receptacles allowed in patient rooms or nurse stations?

8 gal.

16 gal.

32 gal.

64 gal.

Per NFPA 101: Life Safety Code, soiled linen and trash containers greater than 32 gallons are not permitted in patient rooms or at nurse stations. Containers larger than this must be located in designated hazardous areas with proper fire protection.
C). 32 gal. (Correct).
Smaller values (8, 16) are permissible but not the regulatory maximum.
D). 64 gal.: Exceeds NFPA maximum and requires special room design.
References:
NFPA 101: Life Safety Code, Section on Waste Receptacle Limits.
The Joint Commission, Environment of Care Standards.

NEW QUESTION 50
A facility manager is reviewing the following bids received for mowing services:
Vendor 1 – $25,000 annually
Vendor 2 – $970.00 per mowing at 30 mowings per year
Vendor 3 – $950.00 per mowing at 26 mowings per year
Vendor 4 – $2,100 per month
Which vendor is the least expensive?

Calculation:
Vendor 1 = $25,000 annually
Vendor 2 = $970 × 30 = $29,100 annually
Vendor 3 = $950 × 26 = $24,700 annually
Vendor 4 = $2,100 × 12 = $25,200 annually
Least expensive = Vendor 3 ($24,700).
References: CHFM Handbook – Financial Management, vendor bid analysis and cost comparison.

NEW QUESTION 51
Which of the following techniques are used for predictive maintenance?
vibration monitoring
oil analysis
PM frequency analysis
ultrasound

1, 2, and 3 only

1, 2, and 4 only

1, 3, and 4 only

2, 3, and 4 only

Predictive maintenance involves techniques that monitor the condition of equipment to anticipate failure before it occurs. Common predictive techniques include:
Vibration monitoring (1) – Detects imbalance, misalignment, or bearing wear.
Oil analysis (2) – Identifies contamination, wear particles, or breakdown in lubricants.
Ultrasound (4) – Detects leaks, arcing, and mechanical friction.
PM frequency analysis (3) is part of preventive maintenance, not predictive maintenance.
References:
ASHE/CHFM Study Guide – Maintenance strategies (preventive vs. predictive).
AHA/CHFM Candidate Handbook – Maintenance and Operations domain.
________________________________________

NEW QUESTION 52
In order to ensure a safe environment for patients, what department must be involved during the planning of all construction projects?

Information Technology

Biomedical Engineering

Patient Services

Infection Control

All construction and renovation projects in healthcare must include Infection Control Risk Assessment (ICRA). Infection Control professionals assess potential risks such as dust, ventilation disruptions, and waterborne hazards during construction. They ensure patient safety through control measures (barriers, negative pressure, monitoring).
D). Infection Control (Correct): Mandatory involvement in construction planning.
A). IT / B. Biomed / C. Patient Services: May participate but are not mandated by TJC and CDC requirements for ICRA.
References:
CDC Guidelines for Environmental Infection Control in Healthcare Facilities.
The Joint Commission, Environment of Care and Infection Prevention Standards.
CHFM Candidate Handbook – Planning, Design, and Construction domain.
________________________________________

NEW QUESTION 53
Life Safety Code® requires which of the following in an on-call sleep room?

smoke alarm

rated door

emergency call button

bathroom

NFPA 101 (Life Safety Code) requires that on-call sleep rooms provided in healthcare facilities must be protected by single-station smoke alarms or an automatic smoke detection system. This requirement ensures early warning for occupants who may be sleeping and unable to respond as quickly in an emergency.
B: Rated doors may be required in certain hazardous areas but are not the mandated feature for on-call sleep rooms.
C: Emergency call buttons are part of patient care areas, not sleep rooms.
D: Bathrooms are not required by Life Safety Code in on-call rooms.
References: NFPA 101, Section 18/19.7.5.5.

NEW QUESTION 54
A diesel emergency generator is rated at 500 KVA. When the generator is tested, the load on it is 220 KVA.
According to the NFPA, the MINIMUM testing requirements are to run the unit

monthly under load for 30 minutes.

annually with supplemental loads for 2 hours.

monthly until the water temperature and oil pressure have stabilized.

annually with supplemental loads for 30 minutes.

NFPA 110 (Standard for Emergency and Standby Power Systems) requires that emergency generators be tested monthly under load. If the available load is less than 30% of the generator’s nameplate rating, the test may be conducted until operating parameters (water temperature, oil pressure) stabilize. For longer durations, supplemental loading or load bank testing applies, but the minimum standard is monthly operation until systems stabilize.
Reference: NFPA 110 (2010), Section 8.4.2.

NEW QUESTION 55
A hospital will purchase builder risk insurance to address which of the following?

medical costs in the event a worker gets hurt on a construction site

payment to subcontractors in the event the prime contractor fails to pay subcontractors

replacement or repair value of a damaged structure

liability caused by general contractor default

Builder’s risk insurance is first-party property insurance that covers physical loss to the work under construction, including the replacement or repair value of a structure and materials during the construction period. It does not provide workers’ compensation (A), payment bond protection for subcontractors (B), or performance/contractor default liability (D). Those are separate coverages (workers’ comp, payment bond, performance bond).
References:
AIA A201 General Conditions; AIA Insurance and Bonds exhibits (scope of builder’s risk).
AHA/ASHE CHFM Study Resources – Construction risk and insurance basics.

NEW QUESTION 56
An emergency generator consumes 25 gallons of fuel per hour at peak load. The same hospital uses a boiler that consumes 35 gallons of fuel per hour. What capacity fuel tank is needed to operate both for 72 hours?

1,800 gallons

2,520 gallons

3,600 gallons

4,320 gallons

Fuel requirements for emergency systems are determined by calculating total consumption per hour multiplied by the required operating duration.
Generator: 25 gallons/hour
Boiler: 35 gallons/hour
Total consumption per hour = 25 + 35 = 60 gallons/hour
For 72 hours: 60 × 72 = 4,320 gallons
Therefore, the fuel tank must have at least 4,320 gallons capacity to meet the 72-hour requirement.
Correct Answer (D. 4,320 gallons).
Other options are underestimations of total combined consumption and would not meet compliance with CMS and NFPA 110 standards, which require hospitals to maintain a 72-hour supply of fuel for emergency power and critical operations.
References:
NFPA 110: Standard for Emergency and Standby Power Systems – 72-hour minimum fuel supply requirement for healthcare facilities.
Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS), Emergency Preparedness Final Rule – Essential fuel supply requirements.
American Hospital Association, CHFM Candidate Handbook – Maintenance and Operations domain includes calculations for utility and emergency power requirements.

NEW QUESTION 57
Which of the following is the best description of the purpose of an Environmental Tour as required by TJC?

categorizes risk assessments

ensures compliance with TJC standards

establishes failures in building systems

identifies hazards

The Joint Commission (TJC) requires hospitals to conduct environmental tours (also called Environment of Care rounds) with the primary purpose of identifying hazards to patients, staff, and visitors. While compliance, risk categorization, and system failures may be evaluated, the main focus is proactive hazard identification to reduce safety risks.
References: The Joint Commission, Environment of Care Standards, EC.04.01.01.

NEW QUESTION 58
The annual utility bill at a hospital is $1.2M for a 500,000 sq. ft. facility. The current construction project will add 100,000 sq. ft. to the facility. What is the anticipated annual utility budget after the construction project is completed?

$240,000

$1,440,000

$1,728,000

$1,828,000

Step 1: Calculate utility cost per square foot.
$1,200,000 ÷ 500,000 sq. ft. = $2.40 per sq. ft.
Step 2: Calculate new total square footage.
500,000 + 100,000 = 600,000 sq. ft.
Step 3: Projected utility cost.
600,000 × $2.40 = $1,440,000
Thus, the anticipated utility budget after expansion is $1,440,000.
References:
AHA/ASHE: CHFM Exam Review – Financial Management Calculations.

NEW QUESTION 59
An electrical transformer has 254 turns in the primary winding and 127 turns in the secondary winding. If a source emf of 220 volts is applied to the primary coil, the value of the voltage available in the secondary coil is

110.

127.

220.

440.

The transformer voltage ratio is determined by the turns ratio:
#
#
#
#
=
#
#
#
#
V
p
V
s
=
N
p
N
s
#
#
=
#
#
×
127
254
=
220
×
0.5
=
110
volts
V
s
=V
p
×
254
127
=220×0.5=110volts
A). 110 (Correct): Secondary voltage is half of the primary because turns ratio = 0.5.
B). 127: Incorrect, not consistent with ratio.
C). 220: Would occur only if turns ratio = 1.
D). 440: Would occur if secondary had twice as many turns as primary.
References:
NFPA 70: National Electrical Code – Transformer basics.
CHFM Candidate Handbook – Maintenance and Operations (Electrical Systems).

NEW QUESTION 60
Which of the following should be considered when determining the simple payback of an energy-saving alternative?

annual operating cost

annual rate of inflation

replacement cost

life of the equipment

The simple payback period is calculated by dividing the initial investment cost by the annual operating savings (reduction in operating cost). It does not consider time value of money, inflation, or full life-cycle costs.
A (Correct): Annual operating cost directly determines the annual savings, which is essential for payback calculation.
B: Inflation is considered in more advanced financial models (e.g., NPV, IRR), not simple payback.
C: Replacement cost is relevant for life-cycle cost analysis, not simple payback.
D: Life of the equipment may determine feasibility but is not part of the basic payback formula.
Reference: CHFM Candidate Handbook – Financial Management domain.

NEW QUESTION 61
Which of the following methods could be used to reduce the cost of a service contract without reducing the scope of service?
Implement an in-house first response program.
Increase the frequency of house calls.
Finance the cost of the contract.
Extend the length of the contract.

1 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2 and 3 only

2 and 4 only

Cost reduction without reducing service scope can be achieved by:
Implementing an in-house first response program (1): Staff address minor issues before calling the vendor, reducing service calls.
Extending the contract length (4): Vendors often offer reduced rates for long-term contracts.
Increasing house calls (2): Increases cost, not savings.
Financing the contract (3): Impacts payment terms, not cost reduction.
References:
AHA/CHFM Candidate Handbook – Financial Management domain.
ASHE Facilities Management Contracting Guidelines.
________________________________________

NEW QUESTION 62
When a motor malfunctions on an air handler, what is the first step to be taken in the replacement of the motor?

Megger the motor windings.

Remove the motor/machine guard.

Disconnect the power wiring.

Initiate lockout/tagout procedures.

Before performing any work on electrical or mechanical equipment, OSHA and NFPA 70E require lockout
/tagout (LOTO) procedures to isolate energy sources. This ensures the safety of workers and prevents accidental energization. Only after lockout/tagout can guards be removed, wiring disconnected, or diagnostic tests performed.
References: OSHA 29 CFR 1910.147; NFPA 70E Standard for Electrical Safety in the Workplace; CHFM Maintenance and Operations domain.
ChatGPT said:

NEW QUESTION 63
Which of the following are used to establish a salary range for a new job category?
market salary analysis
candidate qualifications
review of internal equity
job description

1, 2, and 3 only

1, 2, and 4 only

1, 3, and 4 only

2, 3, and 4 only

Salary ranges are determined by job requirements and market benchmarks, not individual candidate qualifications. Key factors are:
Market salary analysis (1).
Internal equity review (3).
Job description (4).
Candidate qualifications (2) affect where within the salary range an individual may be placed, but not the establishment of the range itself.
References:
AHA/CHFM Candidate Handbook – Administration domain (Human Resources).
ASHE Management Guidelines.
________________________________________

Loading …